Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 14:01
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Aged neurons don’t respond normally to stress: Study - Parkinson's News Today
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Flipping two atoms in LSD turned it into a powerful treatment for damaged brain circuits - PsyPost
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Which is a better option, a love marriage or an arranged marriage in India?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.